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Showing posts with label COPA MCQ. Show all posts
Showing posts with label COPA MCQ. Show all posts

Sunday, June 2, 2019

E-Commerce Best Question

Introduction to E Commerce

1. Sale or purchase of items without physically
visiting a shop is called .
(a) E-Commerce
(b) Point of Sale (POS)
(c) Goods and Services
(d) Disposal
2. E-Commerce may be carried out using
modes.
(a) SMS/ phone conversation
(b) Web
(c) email
(d) all of them

Answers:

1. (a)        2. (d)

Types of E-Commerce

1. When the seller and the buyer are both business firms, it is called model of E-Commerce.
(a) C2B or Consumer to Business
(b) B2C or Business to Consumer
(c) B2B or Business to Business
(d) C2C or Consumer to Consumer

2. When the seller is a business and the is an individual consumer, it is called model of E-Commerce.
(a) C2B or Consumer to Business
(b) B2C or Business to Consumer
(c) B2B or Business to Business
(d) C2C or Consumer to Consumer

3. When the seller is an individual and the buyer is a business firm, it is called model of E-Commerce.

(a) C2B or Consumer to Business
(b) B2C or Business to Consumer
(c) B2B or Business to Business
(d) C2C or Consumer to Consumer

4. When the seller and the buyer are both individuals, it is called model of E-Commerce.
(a) C2B or Consumer to Business
(b) B2C or Business to Consumer
(c) B2B or Business to Business
(d) C2C or Consumer to Consumer

Answers

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d)

General questions on E Commerce


1. is the trading of goods and items through the Internet.
(a) E-Trade (b) E-Commerce
(c) E-Network (d) none of them

2. What is the full form of B2B?
(a) Bihar to Bihar
(b) Bombay to Bombay
(c) Business to Business
(d) none of them

3. What is the full form of B2C?
(a) Bihar to Chandigarh
(b) Bombay square to Chandigarh
(c) Business to Consumer
(d) none of them
4. What is the full form of ALE in ecommerce?
(a) Application Link Embedding
(b) Application Link Electronics
(c) Application Leakage Enabling
(d) none of them
5. What is the full form of EDI in ecommerce?
(a) Electronic Detailed International
(b) Electronic Data Interchange
(c) Electronic Digital Interchange
(d) none of them
6. Which e-commerce software requires initial one time password investment of licensing
fee?
(a) OnPromise (b) SaaS
(c) Open Source (d) none of them
7. Which of the following is a cloud based eCommerce platform (applications are
hosted and managed in service providers datacentre, subscribed on payment basis)?
(a) OnPromise (b) SaaS
(c) Open Source (d) none of them
8. Which of the ecommerce software is free of charge (no licensing fee)?
(a) OnPromise (b) SaaS
(c) Open Source (d) none of them
9. What is the full form of C2B?
(a) Chandigarh to Bihar
(b) Chandigarh to Bombay square
(c) Consumer to Business
(d) none of them
10. What is the full form of CRM in ecommerce?
(a) Crime Report Management
(b) Customer Relationship Management
(c) Consumer Resource Management
(d) none of them
11. What is the term given to e-commerce
site where product and inventory information
is provided by multiple third parties?
(a) online marketplace
(b) online e-commerce
(c) e-marketplace
(d) none of them

12. In an on line marketplace, transactions
are processed by .
(a) marketplace operator
(b) customer
(c) seller
(d) none of them
13. Example of an online marketplace are
.
(a) eBay (b) Snapdeal
(c) Flipkart (d) all of them
14. Which of the following ecommerce platforms allows consumers to buy goods directly from seller over the Internet?
(a) e-webshop (b) e-shopping
(c) e-webstore (d) all of them
15. Which software model allows accumulation
of a list of items before making the
online purchase?
(a) online shopping
(b) e-shopping
(c) shopping cart
(d) none of them
16. What is the name of front page of a web store accessed by visitors to the online
shop?
(a) storefront (b) webfront
(c) e-store (d) none of them
17. If a company sends bills over the Internet and consumers pay the bills online, it is
called .
(a) Internet billing
(b) web billing
(c) electronic billing
(d) none of them
18. Which parties are involved in electronic billing?
(a) billers
(b) bankers
(c) consolidators
(d) all of them
19. What is the full form of BPP in ecommerce?
(a) Biller Payment Provider
(b) Biller Provision Provider
(c) Biller Payment Protector
(d) none of them
20. What is the full form of BSP in ecommerce?
(a) Biller Service Protector
(b) Biller Service Provider
(c) Biller Service Packer
(d) none of them

21. What is the full form of CSP in ecommerce?
(a) Card Service Provider
(b) Customer Service Provider
(c) central Service Provider
(d) none of them
22. What is the full form of ACH in ecommerce?
(a) Association of Clearing Houses
(b) Anonymous Cleansing House
(c) Automatic Clearing House
(d) none of them
23. What is the full form of BITS in ecommerce?
(a) Bihartiya Institute of Technology & Society
(b) Banking Industry Technology Secretariat
(c) Banking Institute of Technology & Society
(d) none of them
24. Which system facilitates the adoption of
electronic payment for online transactions?
(a) motivated electronic purchase system
(b) electronic payment system
(c) online payment system
(d) none of them
25. What is the fill form of CVN in ecommerce?
(a) Card Verification Number
(b) Commerce Verified Number
(c) Consumer Verified Number
(d) none of them
26. In system, payment gateway allows
the consumer to specify the bank
from which payment should be made.
(a) e-pay banking
(b) e-commerce banking
(c) net banking
(d) none of them
27. What can be used by a consumer and accepted by a merchant for making payments?
(a) merchant card
(b) payment card
(c) visiting card
(d) none of them
28. What is the size of payment card?
(a) 85.60 × 53.98cm
(b) 85.60 × 53.98mm
(c) 85.60 × 53.98m
(d) none of them
29. The default period of loan for a credit card holder is days.
(a) 55 (b) 50
(c) 58 (d) none of them
30. A partial payment of loan in case of charge cards may attract .
(a) bonus (b) late fee
(c) interest (d) none of them
31. In which card, a card holder is not required to make payments every month?
(a) charge (b) credit
(c) debit (d) none of them
32. In which card, funds are directly withdrawn from his bank account for each
payment made through the card?
(a) debit (b) credit
(c) ATM (d) none of them
33. What is the full form of ATM?
(a) Any Time Money
(b) Automated Transaction Management
(c) Automated Teller Machine
(d) none of them
34. Which card cannot be used for cash withdrawal?
(a) ATM (b) charge
(c) debit (d) none of them
35. Which cards have a monetary value store on the card itself?
(a) ATM (b) charge
(c) stored-value (d) none of them
36. Which cards are not issued in the name of any individual?
(a) ATM (b) stored value
(c) debit (d) none of them
37. Which cards are commonly used to buy gasoline (petrol), diesel and other fuels?
(a) fleet/fuel (b) ATM
(c) credit (d) none of them
38. Which cards store card data that can be read by physical contact and swiping past
a reading head?
(a) magnetic strip
(b) embossing
(c) smart
(d) none of them
39. Which card contains a chip having embedded integrated circuit which can process
data?
(a) magnetic strip
(b) embossing
(c) smart
(d) none of them
40. Which of the following authenticates and handles credit card payment for eCommerce?
(a) payment gateway
(b) e-commerce gateway
(c) software gateway
(d) none of them
Answers 

1. (b)     2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a)      5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c)   9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (a)

13. (d)  14. (d)  15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (b)   21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (b)

25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (c) 31. (c) 32. (a)

33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (b)37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (a)


Sunday, May 12, 2019

COPA MCQ WITH ANSWER

COPA MCQ WITH ANSWER



Follow the given link to see mcq question . This is the very important for all copa student for practice online examination 

CLICK HERE TO DOWNLOAD MCQ 

Tuesday, March 19, 2019

Computer Administration MCQ

Computer Administration MCQ For COPA TRADE


1. The power on process of a computer is called . (a) waking up (b) boot strapping (c) formatting (d) installing
2. The test performed by computer to iden- tify the hardware peripherals and units attached to it is called . (a) Power On Self Test (b) Disk Defragmenting (c) formatting (d) scandisk
3. In booting of computer, POST is ex- panded as . (a) Power On Self Test (b) Disk Defragmenting (c) formatting (d) scandisk
4. Primary boot process is otherwise called (a) POST (b) loading of operating system (c) installation (d) formatting
5. Full form of BIOS is . (a) Bare Input Output System (b) Basic Intermediate Operating System (c) Banned Input Output System (d) Basic Input Output System
6. Essential settings like date, time, boot order, etc. needed for BIOS at boot time are stored in . (a) POST (b) CMOS (c) Hard Disk (d) DVD
7. In computer mother board, CMOS stands for . (a) Corroded Metal Oxide Semiconductor (b) Contact Metal Oxide Semiconductor (c) Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (d) Complementary Metal Oxide Syntax
8. CMOS is a . (a) RAM (b) ROM (c) EPROM (d) EEPROM
9. Memory which can be written only once is called . (a) RAM (b) ROM (c) EPROM (d) EEPROM
10. Memory which can be erased and repro- grammed is called . (a) RAM (b) ROM (c) EPROM (d) EEPROM
11. Memory which can be erased using elec- tric current and reprogrammed is called (a) RAM (b) ROM (c) EPROM (d) EEPROM
12. ROM stands for . (a) Random Ordinary Memory (b) Read Only Memory (c) Read Ordinary Memory (d) Read Only Mail
13. EPROM stands for . (a) Erasable Partition Read Only Memory (b) Erasable Pointer Read Only Memory (c) Extended Programmable Read Only Memory (d) Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
14. EEPROM stands for . (a) Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory (b) Extremely Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory (c) Effectively Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory (d) Extended Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory

15. keeps CMOS is in power on condition. (a) Hard disk (b) RAM (c) SMPS (d) CMOS Battery (CR2032)
16. After booting process, BIOS helps in (a) data transfer (b) processing (c) graphics (d) cloud storage
17. First part of boot loader accessed from BIOS chip is called . (a) intermediate boot loader (b) tertiary boot loader (c) secondary boot loader (d) primary boot loader
18. On completion of POST, the computer emits . (a) foul odour (b) music (c) beep (d) water
19. The second part of boot loader respon- sible for booting the operating system is called . (a) intermediate boot loader (b) tertiary boot loader (c) secondary boot loader (d) primary boot loader
20. GRUB stands for . (a) GRand Unified Boot Loader (b) Generic Unified Boot Loader (c) Grand United Boot Loader (d) Great Unified Boot Loader
21. In booting a computer, MBR stands for (a) Master Boot Reader (b) Multi Boot Record (c) power problem (d) mother board problem
29. 2 short beeps during POST denotes of computer. (a) normal boot (b) error code displayed on screen (c) power problem (d) mother board problem
30. Continuous beep or repeated short beeps during POSTdenotes .......... of computer.
22. In booting a computer, BOOTMGR stands for . (a) Best Master (b) Boot Man (c) Boot Manager (d) Boot Mirage 23. In booting a computer, NTLDR stands for . (a) Next Technology LoaDeR (b) New Technology LoaDeR (c) New Terminal LoaDeR (d) New Talent LoaDeR 24. In booting a computer, UEFI stands for . (a) Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (b) United Extensible Firmware Interface (c) Universal Extensible Firmware Interface (d) Uniform Extensible Firmware Interface 25. In booting a computer, ESP stands for . (a) EFI System Package (b) EFI Sorted Partition (c) EFI System Partition (d) EFI Self Partition Booting error signals 26. The type of error signal depends upon of the computer. (a) power switch (b) manufacturer of the BIOS chip (c) type of monitor (d) type of keyboard 27. 1 short beep during POST denotes of computer. (a) normal boot (b) error code displayed on screen (c) power problem (d) mother board problem

28. 1 short and 1 long beeps during POST denotes of computer. (a) normal boot (b) error code displayed on screen (c) power problem (d) mother board problem

29. 2 short beeps during POST denotes
  of computer.
(a) normal boot
(b) error code displayed on screen
(c) power problem
(d) mother board problem


30. Continuous beep or repeated short beeps during POST denotes

..........of computer

31. 1 long and 2 short beeps during POST denotes of computer. (a) video card (VGA) problem (b) keyboard error (c) power problem (d) mother board problem
32. 1 long and 3 short beeps during POST denotes of computer. (a) video card (EGA) problem (b) keyboard error (c) power problem (d) mother board problem

33. 3 long beeps during POST denotes of computer. (a) video card (EGA) problem (b) keyboard error (c) power problem (d) mother board problem
34. CMOS is a type of . (a) ROM (b) DVD (c) CD (d) RAM

35. CMOS is kept powered on using . (a) AA battery (b) AAA battery (c) CMOS battery (CR2032) (d) wet cell battery
36. When CMOS battery fails, all BIOS set- tings are . (a) remembered (b) lost (c) maintained (d) kept stored
37. BIOS settings may be accessed by press- ing key immediately after switching power supply on. (a) DEL (b) F2 (c) ESC (d) any one of them
38. Usually, date, time, drive options, mem- ory details, etc. are accessible under menu of BIOS settings. (a) Advanced (b) Main (c) Power (d) Boot
39. Usually, processor configuration, on board settings of motherboard, USB configuration, etc. are accessible under menu of BIOS settings. (a) Advanced (b) Main (c) Power (d) Boot
40. Usually, power options are accessible un- der menu of BIOS settings. (a) Advanced (b) Main (c) Power (d) Boot
41. Usually, UEFI settings, order of boot media, etc. are accessible under menu of BIOS settings. (a) Advanced (b) Main (c) Power (d) Boot
42. Passwords for user and administra- tor of BIOS may be accessed using menu of BIOS settings. (a) Advanced (b) Security (c) Power (d) Boot
43. Options for saving or discarding changes and exiting BIOS settings is accessible from menu of BIOS set- tings. (a) Advanced (b) Security (c) Power (d) Exit 44. After inserting the Windows installation media (like CD, DVD or pen drive), message is displayed. (a) Press any key to boot from CD/ DVD ... (b) Press Ctrl+Alt+Delete (c) Press left button of mouse (d) Press centre button of mouse
45. When Windows loads during installa- tion, are to be chosen first. (a) keyboard layout (b) language selection for installation (c) both a & b (d) neither a nor b 46. When the menu for managing hard disk partitions is displayed, op- tions help to create, delete and format partitions. (a) New (b) Delete (c) Format (d) all of them
47. After choosing a suitable partition for installation of Windows, . (a) delete that partition (b) select that partition and press Next button (c) press Ctrl+Alt+Delete (d) Switch off power supply
48. Durign installation of Windows, the computer after copying files, installing features. (a) reboots (b) keeps on processing (c) keeps on beeping (d) plays music
49. During installation of Windows, user names and passwords are entered the operating system gets fully ready. (a) before (b) after (c) only after (d) subsequent to
50. After completing installation of Win- dows, are to be installed for making the computer safe and pro- ductive. (a) anti-virus (b) Office package (c) Adobe Reader and other application software packages (d) all of them 51. For many problems, the com- puter solves the troubles. (a) rebooting (b) selling off (c) condemning (d) cursing
52. If the computer is very slow, . (a) unplug Internet connection (b) open task manager (Ctrl+Shift+ESC or Ctrl+Alt+Delete) (c) right click and end runaway programs (d) try any one or all the techniques
53. When the computer exhibits unpre- dictable behaviour, . (a) remove all peripherals except keyboard, mouse and monitor and reboot (b) identify the erring peripheral by connecting each peripheral one by one (c) try system restore to a previous date (d) all of them
54. When the PC does not boot, try . (a) verify power cables (b) check whether green LED on mother board glows (c) switch on SMPS power switch, if any, and ver- ify whether the SMPS fan runs (d) all of them
55. If a computer emits beeps and halts, do to make the computer work again. (a) remove RAM, clean and refix (b) remove VGA cable and reconnect (c) remove CMOS battery (CR2032) and replace it with new one (d) all or any one of them
56. If computer displays the error message ”Insert boot media”, do . (a) modify BIOS settings to boot from hard disk (b) configure the BIOS to boot from alternate in- stallation media like CD/DVD (c) reboot to try whether secondary boot process starts (d) all of them
57. When boot is halted due to wrong BIOS settings, . (a) press DEL, F2 or ESC key to enter BIOS set- tings (b) set correct date and time (c) set correct boot order (d) all of them
58. If a computer does not switch on, do . (a) check power cables (b) check whether SMPS is running (c) switch on SMPS, if it has any switch (d) all of them
59. If a computer looses BIOS settings after each power off, do . (a) replace CMOS battery (CR2032) (b) sell off the computer (c) switch off the computer (d) clean the computer
60. If printer does not work in a computer, do . (a) check PC to printer connection (b) check whether appropriate driver has been in- stalled for the printer (c) start print spooler service from control panel (d) all of them
61. If a PC displays access violation error and reboots in the middle of working, . (a) check the RAM chip (b) replace the RAM chip and try whether the problem continues (c) both a & b (d) neither a nor b
62. If the Internet connection is very slow, do . (a) disable automatic software updates (b) stop cloud storage services like drop box, one drive, iCloud, etc. from syncing on slow con- nection (c) stop messenger services which have opened at boot time (d) all of them
63. If a program does not install or closes just after install screen opens, do (a) check whether the program is compatible to the operating system (64 bit or 32 bit) (b) right click on setup program and choose Run as Administrator (c) try to run the program in compatibility mode (d) all of them
64. When there is a paper jam in printer, do (a) switch off printer (b) open the lid (c) gently remove the jammed paper (d) all of them Answers
1. (b)                  2. (a)                  3. (a)                  4. (a)       5. (d)                  6. (b)                  7. (c)                  8. (a)

9. (b)                  10. (c)                11. (d)                12. (b)      13. (d)                14. (a)                15. (d)                16. (a)
17. (d)                18. (c)                19. (c)                20. (a)        21. (d)                22. (c)                23. (b)                24. (a)

25. (c)                26. (b)                27. (a)                28. (d)         29. (b)                30. (c)                31. (a)                32. (a)
33. (b)                34. (d)                35. (c)                36. (b)          37. (d)                38. (b)                39. (a)                40. (c)
41. (d)                42. (b)                43. (d)                44. (a)           45. (c)                46. (d)                47. (b)                48. (a)
49. (a)                50. (d)                51. (a)                52. (d)           53. (d)                54. (d)                55. (d)                56. (d)
57. (d)                58. (d)                59. (a)                60. (d)               61. (c)                62. (d)                63. (d)                64. (d

COPA MCQ Question Part 2

101. The keys are placed to the left and right of space bar.
(a) Ctrl
(b) Windows button
(c) Alt
(d) all of them

102. The key opens context menu.
(a) Ctrl
(b) Windows button
(c) Alt
(d) function key

103. The series of keys named F1 ... F12 are called .
(a) function keys
(b) scroll keys
(c) number keys
(d) navigation keys

104. Function keys are placed at the
  of keyboard.
(a) bottom (b) right
(c) top (d) left

105. The Insert, Delete, Home, End, Page Up and Page Down keys are placed above
(a) arrow keys
(b) number lock
(c) function keys
(d) scroll lock

106. A second enter key is available in  area of keyboard.
(a) arrow keys
(b) number lock
(c) function keys
(d) scroll lock

107. Most of the shortcut keys are designed to use key along with one or two characters.
(a) Ctrl
(b) Alt
(c) both a & b
(d) none of them

108. opens the start menu.
(a) Windows key
(b) Ctrl
(c) Alt
(d) F1

109. opens help.
(a) Windows key
(b) Ctrl
(c) Alt
(d) F1

110. The function keys are arranged in 3 groups of keys in a group.
(a) 2 (b)  3
(c) 4 (d)  5



111. The helps to move the cur- sor on screen and point at specific icons.
(a) scanner (b) mouse
(c) keyboard (d)  printer

112. Normally, pressing the button of mouse once or twice on an icon opens the program associated with that icon.
(a) left (b) right
(c) centre (d) bottom

113. Normally, pressing the button of mouse opens a context menu.
(a) left (b) right
(c) centre (d) bottom

114. Normally,button of mouse doubles as a scroller.
(a) left (b) right
(c) centre (d) bottom

115. The computer can be configured to open a program on the icon using mouse.
(a) single clicking
(b) double clicking
(c) both a & b
(d) neither a nor b

116. Mouse may have for sens- ing movement.
(a) ball
(b) light sensor
(c) either a or b
(d) neither a nor b



117. A device which can process characters and drawings on paper and convert them to digital images (or editable objects) for computers is called .
(a) scanner
(b) digital tablet
(c) light pen
(d) printer

118. A device which converts handwriting to computer input is called .
(a) scanner
(b) digital tablet
(c) light pen
(d) printer

119. A stylus used to provide input through CRT monitor is called .
(a) scanner
 (b) digital tablet
(c) light pen
(d) printer


120. is the most common out- put device for a computer.
(a) monitor
(b) printer
(c) both a & b
(d) neither a nor b

121. VDU is expanded as .
(a) Visual Display Unit
(b) Virtual Display Unit
(c) Visual Deception Unit
(d) Visual Display University

122. In computer monitors, CRT stands for
 (a) Cadmium Ray Tube
(b) Cathode Ray Tube
(c) Cathode Ray Twist
(d) Cathode Rim Tube

123. Cathode Ray Tube (CRT) monitor sup- ports input.
(a) LASER printer
(b) line printer
(c) light pen
(d) plotter

124. Cathode Ray Tube (CRT) monitor has level of power consumption amongst monitors.
(a) highest (b) lowest
(c) zero (d) least

125. LCD is expanded as Linear Crystal Display

(a) large displays (> 32”)
(b) small displays
(c) display of mobile phone
(d) display of watches

129. TFT is expanded as .
(a) Tiny Film Transistor
(b) Thin Film Transistor
(c) Thin Floppy Transistor
(d) Thin Film Transmission

130. The density of pixels in a monitor sur- face is called .
(a) revolution (b) reaction
(c) resolution (d) relation

131. The number of pixels per inch of monitor length is called .
(a) LPI (Lines Per Inch)
(b) DPI (Dots Per Inch)
(c) SPI Sides Per Inch
(d) PPI (Pixels Per Inch)

132. Height to width ratio of a monitor screen is called .
(a) aspect ratio
(b) length ratio
(c) width ratio
(d) diagonal ratio

133. Generally, CRT monitors had aspect ra- tio of .
(a) 16:9 (b)  4:3
(c) 16:10 (d)  1:1

134. LCD, LED, TFT and Plasma monitors have aspect ratio of .
(a) 16:9
(b) 16:10
(c) both a & b
(d) neither a nor b

135. The monitor having pixel resolution of 1280 × 720 has aspect ratio of Liquid Crystal Dialog
 (a) 16:9
 (b) 16:10
 (c) Liquid Crystal Display
(d) Liquid Canister Display

126. LED is expanded as .
(a) Linear Emitting Diode
(b) Light Emitting Diode
(c) Liquid Emitting Diode
(d) Light Emitting Display

127. The display of LCD monitor is
  than that of LED monitor.
(a) lighter (b) heavier
(c) brighter (d) duller

128. Plasma monitor is suitable for
 (a) 4:3 (b) 1:1

136. The monitor having pixel resolution of  800 600 has aspect ratio of
 
(a) 16:9 (b) 16:10
(c) 4:3 (d) 1:1

137. The monitor having pixel resolution of 1280 800 has aspect ratio of
  .
(a) 16:9 (b) 16:10
(c) 4:3 (d) 1:1

138. The monitor having pixel resolution of 1920 1080 has aspect ratio of
(a) 16:9 (b) 16:10
(c) 4:3 (d) 1:1

139. In monitors, HD stands for
 (a) Hyper Density
(b) High Direct
(c) Hot Definition
(d) High Definition

140. Display resolution of 1920 1080 pixels is called display.
(a) 480p
(b) 576p
(c) 720p
(d) Full High Definition (FHD)

141. Full High Definition (FHD) of dis- plays correspondes to (ver- tical pixel resolution).
(a) 480p (b) 576p
(c) 720p (d) 1080p

142. Display resolution of 1280 720 pixels is called .
(a) 480p
(b) 576p
(c) 720p
(d) Full High Definition (FHD)

143. Display resolution of 768 576 pixels is called .
(a) 480p
(b) 576p
(c) 720p
(d) Full High Definition (FHD)

144. Display resolution of 720 480 pixels is called .
(a) 480p
(b) 576p
(c) 720p
(d) Full High Definition (FHD)

145. The notation HDi for display resolution denotes .
(a) 1080p Interlaced
(b) 720p Interlaced
(c) 576p Interlaced
(d) 480p Interlaced

146. The method of displaying screen con- tents using even rows for half a second and odd rows for another half second is called of video.
(a) progressive scanning
(b) interlacing
(c) deinterlacing
(d) reducing

147. The method of displaying screen con- tents using even rows for half a second and odd rows for another half second is called of video.
(a) progressive video
(b) interlacing
(c) deinterlacing
(d) reducing

148. The p in display resolutions of 1080p, 720p, 576p&480p stands for
(a) progressive video
(b) interlacing
(c) deinterlacing
(d) reducing

149. The method of painting each row of video frame from top to bottom is called
(a) progressive video
(b) interlacing
(c) deinterlacing
(d) reducing

150. The method of painting odd rows during the fist pass and even rows during the second pass is called .
(a) progressive video
(b) interlacing
(c) deinterlacing
(d) reducing



151. The device that produces hard copies on paper is called .
(a) monitor (b) scanner
(c) tablet (d) printer

152. Paper copy of a document is called
 
(a) light copy (b) hard copy
(c) soft copy (d) hot copy

153. Digital copy of a document stored in secondary storage device (like hard disk, floppy disk, CD, DVD, pen drive, SD card, etc.) is called .
(a) light copy (b) hard copy
(c) soft copy (d) hot copy

154. The type of printer which hits the paper to produce print is called .
(a) monitor
(b) scanner
(c) non-impact type printer
(d) impact type printer

 155. The type of printer which does not hit the paper to produce print is called
 a) monitor
(b) scanner
(c) non-impact type printer
(d) impact type printer

156. Dot matrix printer belongs to  category.
(a) monitor
(b) scanner
(c) non-impact type printer
(d) impact type printer

157. Dot matrix printer, line printer, chain printer, golf ball printer and daisy wheel printer belong to category.
(a) monitor
(b) scanner
(c) non-impact type printer
(d) impact type printer

158. LASER printer, ink jet printer, ther- mal printer and plotter belong to
  category.
(a) monitor
(b) scanner
(c) non-impact type printer
(d) impact type printer

159. In LASER printer, the LASER beam pro- duces charge on paper, which makes the toner powder to adhere to the charged area.
(a) (-)ve (b) (+)ve
(c) neutral (d) none of them

160. In ink jet printer,  colour cartridges are used to produce colour/black print.
(a) Red, Blue & Green (RBG)
(b) Cyan, Magenta, Yellow & blacK (CMYK)
(c) Red, Green & Blue (RGB)
(d) VIBGYOR

161. In ink jet printer, CMYK stands for
 
(a) Cream, Magenta, Yellow & blacK
(b) Crimson, Magenta, Yellow & blacK
(c) Cyan, Magenta, Yellow & blacK
(d) Cyan, Mango, Yellow & blacK

162. The type of printer used for printing on large size papers (A0, A1, etc.) is called
  .
(a) monitor (b) scanner
(c) mouse (d) plotter

163. Thermal printer uses      coated paper, which turns black when heat is applied.
(a) chromium (b) BisPhenol A
(c) nickel (d) toner powder

164. CPU is expanded as .
(a) Central Power Unit
(b) Critical Processing Unit
(c) Central Processing Unit
(d) Cerebral Processing Unit

165. The symbol µP denotes of a computer.
(a) mighty processor
(b) micro presenter
(c) million power
(d) micro-processor

166. is casually called the ”Brain of Computer”.
(a) CPU (b) monitor
(c) keyboard (d) mouse

167. The main components housed in CPU are .
(a) micro-processor
(b) Mother board, Random Access Memory (RAM)
(c) Secondary storage devices (hard disk,CD/DVD drive, floppy disk drive, etc.)
(d) all of them

168. In the CPU of a computer,  delivers power supply to all the compo- nents at appropriate voltages.
(a) Hard Disk
(b) Mother Board
(c) Switch Mode Power Supply (SMPS)
(d) DVD drive

169. The chip carrying out all process- ing works in a computer is called
(a) micro-processor (µP )
(b) keyboard
(c) BIOS chip
(d) RAM

170. The part of micro-processor which per- forms number crunching and logical comparisons is called .
(a) Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)
(b) Register
 (c) Cache
(d) timer

171. ALU stands for .
(a) Arithmetic and Logic University
(b) Arithmetic and Local Unit
(c) Arithmetic and Logic Unit
(d) Analysis and Logic Unit

172. The part of micro-processor used for storing values needed for next cycle of processing is called
(a) Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)
(b) Register
(c) clock
(d) timer

173. The part of micro-processor holding data which is needed for forthcoming cy- cles of processing is called .
(a) Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)
(b) Register
(c) Cache
(d) timer

174. The part of micro-processor which main- tains a clock and induces each cycle of processing through a pulse is called
 (a) Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)
(b) Register
(c) Cache
(d) timer

175. The number of floating point operations carried out by a micro-processor in one second is called
(a) FLOPS (b) timer
(c) clock (d) frequency

176. The number of cycles of operations per- formed by a processor per second is called its .
(a) bus speed
(b) connection speed
(c) clock speed
(d) baud rate

177. Whereas clock speed is the gross num- ber of operations performed by a pro- cessor per second, FLOPS represents
  of processor per second.
(a) wasted time
(b) effective out turn
(c) wasted cycles
(d) clock speed

178. A floating point operation may require clock cycle to complete.
(a) just one
(b) less than one
 (c) zero
(d) more than one

179. Intel Pentium processor was preceded by Intel processor.
(a) Core 2 duo (b) 80486/ 486
(c) Core i3 (d) Core i5


180. The storage which handles data required for the processor (by fetching data from or saving data to secondary storage) is called .
(a) main memory
(b) primary storage/ volatile storage
(c) Random Access Memory (RAM)
(d) all of them

181. Main memory data after power off.
(a) retains
(b) remembers
(c) does not keep
(d) keeps all

182. Since main memory looses data after power off, it is called .
(a) data storage
(b) volatile storage
(c) power storage
(d) secondary storage

183. RAM is expanded as .
(a) Right Access Memory
(b) Random  Active Memory
(c) Random Access Memory
(d) Random Access Meter

184. SRAM stands for .
(a) Static Random Access Memory
(b) Stable Random Access Memory
(c) Static Read Access Memory
(d) Static Random Arithmetic Memory

185. DRAM stands for .
(a) Draft Random Access Memory
(b) Direct Random Access Memory
(c) Disk Random Access Memory
(d) Dynamic Random Access Memory

186. FPM DRAM stands for .
(a) First Page Mode Dynamic Random Access Memory
(b) Fast Page Mode Dynamic Random Access
Memory
(c) Fill Page Mode Dynamic Random Access Memory
 (d) Fast Package Mode Dynamic Random Access Mother board
Memory

187. EDO DRAM stands for
  .
(a) Extended Disk Out Dynamic Random Access
Memory
(b) Expanded Data Out Dynamic Random Access Memory
(c) Extended Data Out Dynamic Random Access Memory
(d) Extended Data Onboard Dynamic Random Access Memory

188. SDRAM stands for .
(a) Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Mem- ory
(b) Simple Dynamic Random Access Memory
(c) Synchronous Double Random Access Memory
(d) Syntax Dynamic Random Access Memory

189. DDR SDRAM stands for
 (a) Double Data Rate Synchronous Dynamic Ran-
dom Access Memory
(b) Double Data Rate Simple Dynamic Random Access Memory
(c) Double Data Rate Synchronous Double Ran- dom Access Memory
(d) Double Data Rate Syntax Dynamic Random Access Memory

190. RDRAM stands for .
(a) Resultant Random Access Memory
(b) Reactive Random Access Memory
(c) Rational Random Access Memory
(d) Rambus Random Access Memory

191. VRAM stands for .
(a) Visual Random Access Memory
(b) Video Random Access Memory
(c) Virtual Random Access Memory
(d) Vintage Random Access Memory

192. MPDRAM stands for .
(a) Major Port Dynamic Random Access Memory
(b) Multi-Point Dynamic Random Access Memory
(c) Multi-Port Dynamic Random Access Memory
(d) Multi-Port Data Random Access Memory

193. SGRAM stands for .
(a) Synchronous Graphics Random Access Mem- ory
(b) Syntax Graphics Random Access Memory
(c) Simple Graphics Random Access Memory
(d) Synchronous Gross Random Access Memory

194. In  a desktop computer, the board
containing micro-processor, RAM and other components is called  board.
(a) graphics (b) mother
(c) white (d) black

195. CMOS in motherboard is expanded as
  .
(a) Customary Metal Oxide Semiconductor
(b) Complementary Mineral Oxide Semiconductor
(c) Complete Metal Oxide Semiconductor
(d) Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor
196. CMOS is a type of RAM, which is con- stantly powered by .
(a) UPS battery (b) CMOS battery
(c) AC main (d) AA battery

197. In motherboard, BIOS is expanded as
  .
(a) Beginner Input Output System
(b) Bit Input Output System
(c) Basic Input Output System
(d) Basic Input Output Syntax

198. In motherboard, CNR stands for
  .
(a) Communication & Network Riser
(b) Contact & Network Riser
(c) Communication & Network Ripper
(d) Complementary & Networking Riser

199. In motherboard, AGP stands for
  .
(a) Automated Graphics Port
(b) Accelerated Graphics Point
(c) Audio Graphics Port
(d) Accelerated Graphics Port

200. In motherboard, PATA stands for.
(a) Peripheral Advanced Technology Attachment
(b) Port Advanced Technology Attachment
(c) Parallel Advanced Technology Attachment
(d) Part Advanced Technology Attachment

201. In motherboard, SATA stands for.
(a) Serial Advanced Technology Attachment
(b) Synchronous Advanced Technology Attach- ment
(c) Synaptic  Advanced  Technology Attachment
(d) Systematic Advanced Technology Attachment

202. In motherboard, chipset takes care of data transfer to and from the processor.
(a) Southbridge (b) Eastbridge
(c) Northbridge (d) Westbridge

203. In motherboard, chipset takes care of data transfer to and from the secondary storage devices (like hard disk, CD/DVD drive, etc.).
(a) Southbridge (b) Eastbridge
(c) Northbridge (d) Westbridge




204. Secondary storage is otherwise called
  .
(a) auxiliary storage
(b) permanent storage
(c) both a & b
(d) main memory

205. Data store in secondary storage is
.
(a) volatile
(b) lost after power off
(c) is deleted after every reboot
(d) permanent (available till deletion)

206. Secondary storage devices are 
in speed when compared to RAM.
(a) faster (b) slower
(c) equal (d) none of them

207. Hard disk uses for data storage and retrieval.
(a) LASER beam acting on light sensitive layer
(b) magnetic disk mounted in spindle
(c) flash memory
(d) plastic magnetic plate

208. CD/DVD drive uses for data storage and retrieval.
(a) LASER beam acting on light sensitive layer
(b) magnetic disk mounted in spindle
(c) flash memory
(d) plastic magnetic plate

209. SD card, mini SD card and micro SD   bits.

card use  for data storage and retrieval.
(a) LASER beam acting on light sensitive layer
(b) magnetic disk mounted in spindle
(c) flash memory
(d) plastic magnetic plate

210. Floppy disk used  for data

(a) 8 (b)  16
(c) 4 (d)  64

211. SD card is expanded as  .
(a) Secure Digital Card
(b) Mini Secure Digital Card

212. Mini SD card is expanded as

(a) Secure Digital Card
(b) Mini Secure Digital Card
(c) Micro Secure Digital Card
(d) Major Secure Digital Card

213. Micro SD card is expanded as
  .
(a) Secure Digital Card
(b) Mini Secure Digital Card
(c) Micro Secure Digital Card
(d) Major Secure Digital Card

214. PCMCIA stands for .
(a) Protected Computer Memory Card Interna- tional Association
(b) Personal Computer Memory Card Interna-tional Association
(c) Personal Complementary Memory Card Inter-national Association
(d) Pen drive Computer Memory Card Interna-tional Association



215. The smallest storage unit permitting storage of 0 and 1 is called .
(a) bit (b) nibble
(c) byte (d) kilo byte

216. One bit can store range of values.
(a) 0 or 1 (b) 0 to 255
(c) 0 to 512 (d) 0 to 1024

217. 4 bits of memory is called .
(a) bit (b) nibble
(c) byte (d) kilo byte

218. Nibble is a storage unit consisting of



219. 8 bits of memory is called .
(a) bit (b) nibble
(c) byte (d) kilo byte

220. Byte is a storage unit consisting of storage and retrieval.

(a) 8

b) 16

(c) 4
(d) 64

221. 1024 bits of storage is called
  .
(a) bit (b) nibble
(c) byte (d) kilo byte

222. Kilo Byte (KB) is a storage unit consist- ing of bits.

(a) 1024 (210)
(b) 1048576 (220)
(c) 1073741824 (230)
(d) 1099511627776 (240)

223. 220 (1048576) bits of storage is called

(a) byte
(b) Kilo Byte (KB)
(c) Mega Byte (MB)
(d) Tera Byte (TB)

224. 1024 KB of storage is called
 
(a) byte
(b) Kilo Byte (KB)
(c) Mega Byte (MB)
(d) Tera Byte (TB)

225. 1 MB = KB. (a) 1024 (210)
(b) 1048576 (220)
(c) 1073741824 (230)
(d) 1099511627776 (240)

226. 1 MB = bits. (a) 1024 (210)
(b) 1048576 (220)
(c) 1073741824 (230)
(d) 1099511627776 (240)

227. 1024 MB of storage is called
.
(a) byte
(b) Kilo Byte (KB)
(c) Mega Byte (MB)
(d) Tera Byte (TB)

228. 1 TB = MB. Storage capacities of devices

229.  1024 TB = 1  .
(a) Mega Byte (MB)
(b) Tera Byte (TB)
(c) Peta Byte (PB)
(d) Exa Byte (EB)

230.  1 PB = 1024  .
(a) Mega Byte (MB)
(b) Tera Byte (TB)
(c) Peta Byte (PB)
(d) Exa Byte (EB)

231.  1024 PB = 1  .
(a) Mega Byte (MB)
(b) Tera Byte (TB)
(c) Peta Byte (PB)
(d) Exa Byte (EB)

232. 1 EB (Exa Byte) = 1024  .
(a) Mega Byte (MB)

233. The storage capacity of a Compact Disk (CD) is .
(a) 800MB (b) 4.7GB
(c) 512MB (d) 1TB

234. The storage capacity of a Digital Versa- tile Disk (DVD) is .
(a) 800MB (b) 4.7GB
(c) 512MB (d) 1TB

235. The storage capacity of a common hard disk is .
(a) 256MB
(b) 512GB
(c) 1TB
(d) any one of a, b or c

236. The storage capacity of a Secure Digi- tal (SD) card/ Mini SD card/ Micro SD card or pen drive can be in the range of
  .
(a) 1 bit to 8 bits
(b) 4 bits to 8 bits
(c) 2GB to 128GB
(d) 1 MB to 1024MB




238. Full form for SMPS in computer is
  .
(a) Sync Mode Power Supply
(b) Switch Mode Power Supply
(c) Stake Mode Power Supply
(d) Switch Mode Power Socket

239. In a desktop computer, pro- duces radio frequency interference.
(a) SMPS
(b) Micro-Processor (µP )
(c) RAM
(d) Mouse

240. The opening provided in the front panel or rear panel of a CPU for connecting peripherals is called .
(a) socket (b) pin
(c) port (d) part

241. External devices/ peripherals like key- board and mouse can be connected to a computer using ports.
(a) PS/2
(b) USB
(c) both a & b
(d) neither a nor b

242. External dialup MODEM can be con- nected to a computer using    port.
(a) RS232/ serial
(b) PS/2
(c) VGA
(d) LPT

243. Monitor is connected to a computer us- ing port.
(a) RS232/ serial
(b) PS/2
(c) VGA
(d) LPT

244. Old style (SIMPLEX) printer (like dot matrix printer) may be connected to a computer using port.
(a) RS232/ serial
(b) PS/2
(c) VGA
(d) LPT

245. Modern (DUPLEX) printer (like LASER jet, inkjet printers) may be connected to a computer using port.
(a) RS232/ serial
(b) USB
(c) PS/2
(d) VGA

246. Broadband connection may be con- nected through port.
(a) RJ45/ Ethernet
(b) USB
(c) PS/2
(d) VGA

247. Printer, fax machine, scanner, web cam- era, external DVD writer, external hard disk, etc. can be connected to computer using port.
(a) RJ45 (b)  USB
(c) PS/2 (d)  VGA

248. Audio input, microphone and speaker output can be connected to computer using .
(a) 3.5mm jack (b) RJ11
(c) RJ45 (d) LPT

249. Joystick can be connected to computer using port.
(a) 3.5mm jack (b) RJ11
(c) RJ45 (d) Game

250. PS/2 stands for .
(a) Registered Jack 11
(b) Registered Jack 45
(c) Personal System 2
(d) Recommended Standard 232

251. RJ11 stands for .
(a) Registered Jack 11
(b) Registered Jack 45
(c) Personal System 2
(d) Recommended Standard 232

252. RJ45 stands for .
(a) Registered Jack 11
(b) Registered Jack 45
(c) Personal System 2
(d) Recommended Standard 232

253. RS232 stands for .
(a) Registered Jack 11
(b) Registered Jack 45
(c) Personal System 2
(d) Recommended Standard 232

254. RJ45 port is otherwise called .
(a) Ethernet (b)  LPT
(c) USB (d)  VGA
255. IEEE 1392 port is otherwise called
  .
(a) Ethernet (b) LPT
(c) USB (d) Firewire

256. LPT stands for .
(a) Registered Jack 11
(b) Registered Jack 45
(c) Line Printer Terminal
(d) Recommended Standard 232

257. USB stands for .
(a) Registered Jack 11
(b) Registered Jack 45
(c) Line Printer Terminal
(d) Universal Serial Bus

258. High definition graphics output may be taken from port of a PC.
(a) 3.5mm jack (b) HDMI
(c) RJ45 (d) LPT

259. HDMI stands for .
(a) Registered Jack 11
(b) High Definition Multimedia Interface
(c) Line Printer Terminal
(d) Universal Serial Bus


260. The component of computer which is not physically accessible, but can be realized through its working is called
  .
(a) hardware (b) software
(c) RAM (d) port

261.   decides how hardware should work.
(a) hardware (b) software
(c) RAM (d) port

262. helps to hardware to pro- duce output based on given input.
(a) Game port (b) software
(c) IEEE 1392 (d) SMPS

263. The operating system & driver software are categorized under software.
(a) system (b) application
(c) malware (d) junkware

264. The software tools required for various types of productive works like prepara- tion of documents, spreadsheets, play- ing audio/video, browsing Internet, etc. are are categorized under soft- ware.
(a) system (b) application
(c) malware (d) junkware

265. Operating system identifies and con- trols hardware in coordination with
  .
(a) power cable (b) mouse
(c) SMPS (d)  BIOS

266. Operating system uses a special software called to initialize, operate and control hardware.
(a) conductor
(b) Ethernet controller
(c) driver
(d) SMPS

267. schedules processor time in such a way as to allow the user to feel that may programs are running at the same time.
(a) application software
(b) operating system

268.   schedules processor time and handles concurrency and paral- lel processing using multiple processor cores.
(a) application software
(b) virus
(c) malware
(d) operating system

269. allots memory for each pro- gram and frees memory when it is no longer needed for a program.
(a) application software
(b) virus
(c) malware
(d) operating system

270. The core of the operating system which controls all hardware and application software, but does not directly interact with the users is called .
(a) kernel (b) shell
(c) sap (d) heart

271. A layer of application software available for the user to interact with operating system kernel is called .
(a) kernel (b) shell
(c) sap (d) heart

272. is an operating system.
(a) Mac OS X
(b) Microsoft Windows
(c) Unix/ Linux/ Free BSD/ Solaris, BeOS
(d) all of them


273. MS DOS stands for .
(a) MicroSoft Disk Operating System
(b) MiniSoft Disk Operating System
(c) MicroSoft Disk Operating Standard
(d) MicroSoft Dirty Operating System
274. MS DOS was first released in the year
  .
(a) 1970 (b)  1981
(c) 1985 (d)  2000

275. Development of MS DOS was stopped in the year .
(a) 1970 (b)  1981
(c) 1985 (d)  2000

276. Windows 1.0 was released in the year
  .

(c) virus (a) 1970 (b) 1981
(d) malware (c) 1985 (d) 2000





277. Windows 1.0, Windows 3.1, Windows 95, Windows 98 and Windows Me were


278. Windows NT, Windows 2000, Windows XP, Windows 2003, Windows Vista, Windows 7, Windows 8 and Windows 10 were based on kernel.
(a) LINUX
(b) UNIX
(c) NT (New Technology)
(d) MS DOS

279. The New Technology (NT) kernel based Windows NT was released in .

280. First version of Mac OS was released in the year  .
(a) 1981 (b) 1984
(c) 1993 (d) 2000
281.    was the first commercial operating system to support Graphical User Interface (GUI).
(a) Windows (b) UNIX
(c) Linux (d) Mac OS
282. The latest version of Mac OS X is based on free UNIX kernel called  .
(a) Darwin
(b) Cygwin
(c) Solaris
(d) Berkeley Software Distribution
283. The mobile version of Mac OS X, used in iPhone, iPad, iWatch, iPod, etc., is called  .
(a) Android
(b) Firefox OS
(c) iOS
(d) Blackberry OS

Linux

284. Linux kernel was developed by
  .
(a) Richard Stallman
(b) Linus Torvalds

(d) all of them

285. First release of Linux kernel took place in the year  .

(a)
(b) UNIX
(c) NT (New Technology)
(d) MS DOS

286. Linux is distributed under an open source license called .
(a) GNU GPL (GNU Not Unix General Public Li-
cense)
(b) Apache license
(c) Berkeley Software Distribution (BSD) license
(d) Microsoft End User License Agreement (EULA)
287. Linux operating system was inspired by
  operating system.
(a) Windows (b) Unix
(c) Mac OS (d) iOS

288. Linux kernel supports for

(a) 1981 (b) 1993 Graphical User Interface (GUI) based
(c) 2000 (d) 2010 desktop.
(a) GNOME
Mac OS X (b) KDE
(c) Enlightenment


289. is a version of Linux ker- nel modified to run on mobile phones/ tablets/ other devices.
(a) Android (b)  Firefox OS
(c) Tizen (d)  all of them

290. are the shell environments commonly supported by Linux.
(a) Bourne Again Shell (bash)
(b) Korn Shell (ksh)
(c) C Shell (csh)
(d) all of them



291. UNIX was one of the first operating sys- tems to support .
(a) multi-tasking
(b) Internet
(c) email
(d) all of them
292. UNIX operating system was developed at .
(a) AT&T Bell Labs
(b) Carnegie Milan University
(c) CERN
(d) NASA

293. UNIX was developed in the year
(a) 1970 (b) 1984
(c) 1985 (d) 1993





294. was a member of the team that developed UNIX operating system.
(a) Ken Thompson
(b) Dennis Ritchie
(c) M.D. McIllary, J.F. Ossanna
(d) all of them

295. POSIX stands for .
(a) Power  Operating System Interface
(b) Portable Operating System Interface
(c) Portable Operating System Internet
(d) Portable Overall System Interface

296. SUS stands for .
(a) Simple UNIX Standard
(b) Single Universal Standard
(c) Single UNIX Standard
(d) Single UNIX Supplement

297.   shell is supported by UNIX kernel.
(a) Bourne (b) Korn
(c) C (d) all of them

298. Early versions of UNIX supported a graphical user environment called
  .
(a) KDE (b) CDE
(c) GNOME (d) none of them

299. CDE stood for .
(a) Common Desktop Environment
(b) Command Desktop Environment
(c) Common Desktop Entry
(d) Common Directory Environment

300.   operating system has the largest number of installations for desk- top computers.
(a) Windows (b) Android
(c) Mac OS X (d) UNIX

Answers:


101. (d) 102. (b) 103. (a) 104. (c) 105. (a) 106. (b) 107. (c) 108. (a) 109. (d) 110. (c) 111. (b) 112. (a)113. (b) 114. (c) 115. (c) 116. (c)117. (a) 118. (b) 119. (c) 120. (c) 121. (a) 122. (b) 123. (c) 124. (a) 125. (c) 126. (b) 127. (d) 128. (a)129. (b) 130. (c) 131. (d) 132. (a) 133. (b) 134. (c) 135. (a) 136. (c) 137. (b) 138. (a) 139. (d) 140. (d)141. (d) 142. (c) 143. (b) 144. (a) 145. (a) 146. (b) 147. (b) 148. (a) 149. (a) 150. (b) 151. (d) 152. (b) 153. (c) 154. (d) 155. (c) 156. (d)157. (d) 158. (c) 159. (a) 160. (b)161. (c) 162. (d) 163. (b) 164. (c)165. (d) 166. (a) 167. (d) 168. (c) 169. (a) 170. (a) 171. (c) 172. (b)173. (c) 174. (d) 175. (a) 176. (c)177. (b) 178. (d) 179. (b) 180. (d)181. (c) 182. (b) 183. (c) 184. (a) 185.(d) 186. (b) 187. (c) 188. (a) 189. (a) 190. (d) 191. (b) 192. (c) 193. (a) 194. (b) 195. (d) 196. (b) 197. (c) 198. (a) 199. (d) 200. (c)201. (a) 202. (c) 203. (a) 204. (c)205. (d) 206. (a) 207. (b) 208. (a)209. (c) 210. (d) 211. (a) 212. (b)213. (c) 214. (b) 215. (a) 216. (a)217. (b) 218. (c) 219. (c) 220. (a)221. (d) 222. (a) 223. (c) 224. (c)225. (a) 226. (b) 227. (d) 228. (c)229. (c) 230. (b) 231. (d) 232. (c)233. (a) 234. (b) 235. (d) 236. (c)237. (b) 238. (b) 239. (a) 240. (c)241. (c) 242. (a)243. (c) 244(d)245. (b) 246. (a) 247. (b) 248. (a)249. (d) 250. (c) 251. (a) 252. (b)253. (d) 254. (a) 255. (d)256. (c)257. (d) 258. (b) 259. (b) 260. (b)261. (b) 262.(b)263. (a) 264. (b)265. (d) 266. (c) 267. (b) 268. (d)269. (d) 270. (a) 271. (b) 272. (d)273. (a) 274. (b) 275. (d) 276. (c)277. (d) 278. (c) 279. (b) 280. (b)281. (d) 282. (a)283. (c) 284. (b)285. (c) 286. (a) 287. (b) 288. (d)289. (d) 290. (d) 291. (d) 292. (a)293. (a) 294. (d) 295. (b) 296. (c)297. (d) 298. (c) 299. (a) 300. (a)